50 PMP EXAM Q/R 003

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QUESTION 101 A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes ail the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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QUESTION 102 The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist.
C. risk register.
D. contract type.

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QUESTION 103 The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact.
D. move in a sequence.

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QUESTION 104
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.

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QUESTION 105
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mrtigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mrtigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mrtigate, Transfer, or Accept

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QUESTION 106
Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying ail of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
A. manager.
B. success. C deadline.
D. scope.

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QUESTION 107
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log

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QUESTION 108
Risk responses reflect an organizalion’s perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance.
B. known risk and unknown risk.
C. identrtied risk and analyzed risk.
D. varying degrees of risk.

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QUESTION 109 The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project
B. Scope
C. Contract
D. Program

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QUESTION 110
One of 1he objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis.
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders.
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities.
D. identify ail of the gaps or shortcomings.

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QUESTION 111
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline

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QUESTION 112
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretonary
D. Mandatory

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QUESTION 113
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.

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QUESTION 114
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Projectteam and functional manager

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QUESTION 115
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment

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QUESTION 116
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretonary
C. Mandatory
D. Internai

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QUESTION 117 Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance daims department

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QUESTION 118
What are the components of the « triple constraint »?
A. Scope, time, requirements
B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost
D. Scope, time, cost

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QUESTION 119
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis

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QUESTION 120
Which 01 the lollowing is an example 01 a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force 01 nature, such as a llood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, Iront loading, or last tracking

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QUESTION 121
Which 01 the lollowing processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent lurther analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability 01 occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning

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QUESTION 122 A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Projectscope,schedule,cost,andqualityoftheproducts oftheworkpackages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overail opportunity and interdependencies among projects

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QUESTION 123 Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan

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QUESTION 124 Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
A. ScheduleAnalysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefrt Analysis

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QUESTION 125 Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager suppcrted by the project manager
D. Project management office

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QUESTION 126 Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?
A. lime series
B. Judgmental
C. Econometric
D. Simulation

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QUESTION 127
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization

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QUESTION 128
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Pertorm Integrated Change Control

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QUESTION 129
What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, stafling, executing and controlling.
C. Management of ail projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategie business objectives.

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QUESTION 130
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detai!.
D. Formally authorize the project.

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QUESTION 131
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions

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QUESTION 132
What are the five Project Management Process Groups?
A. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing C Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending
D. Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure

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QUESTION 133
PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:
A. product-oriented processes.
B. project management processes.
C. product-oriented and project management processes.
D. program management and project management processes.

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QUESTION 134
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement

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QUESTION 135
Which 01 the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency

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QUESTION 136
ln the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When ail the stakeholders agree on the scope 01 the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or lunding is obtained

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QUESTION 137
Which 01 the following is the process 01 identilying the specifie actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes

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QUESTION 138
What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management ofthose projects under ils domain?
A. Project management office
B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office

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QUESTION 139
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness

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QUESTION 140
Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:
A. Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
B. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
C. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy.
D. Project charter, procurement documents, expertjudgment, and organizational process assets.

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QUESTION 141
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
A. Project manager information systems
B. Expertjudgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming

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QUESTION 142
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activrties
D. Virtual teams

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QUESTION 143 The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?
A. Project finance management
B. Project cost estimation
C. Project Irte cycle definrtion
D. Project plan development

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QUESTION 144
A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation
B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project
C. Resolving issues and change management wrthin a shared governance structure
D. A1igning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals

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QUESTION 145
A project can be defined as a:
A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

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QUESTION 146
Ouring a project’s initiation phase, the project manager reviews the business case and finds that information is incomplete. What should the project manager do?
A. Add an information gap to the risk register.
B. Review the project statement of work (SOW) to create the project charter.
C. Revise the business case to narrow the project scope and create the project charter.
D. Review tihe business case with the sponsoring organization to confirm that the project aligns witih business needs.

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QUESTION 147
A project manager begins a project to develop a network of walkways in a rural area. This is part of a government initiative to enhance pedestrian safety. The project team systematically gathers and analyzes information to measure and manage expectations during the project.
Where should the project manager document tiheir results?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Quality management plan
C. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis
D. Resource management plan

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QUESTION 148
A project has been initiated that has several project stakeholders from various departments. Sorne stakeholders are unavailable for the facilitation meeting to discuss end-to-end processes. To satisfy their own personal agenda, the project owner requests that the meeting take place without ail stakeholders present.
What should the project manager do?
A. Reschedule the meeting to accommodate ail stakeholders.
B. Hold a separate meeting with Ihose stakeholders who are unavailable.
C. Set up a facilitation meeting without ail stakeholders to obtain initial requirements.
D. Discuss stakeholder availabilitywith the sponsor.

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QUESTION 149
After joining a new project, the project manager discovers that stakeholders’ initial expectations of its duration fail to match their own experience with rolling ouI similar projects. What should the project manager do?
A. Present the stakeholders with lessons learned from prior projects.
B. Ask the project sponsor for additional resources.
C. Revise the duration estimates to meet stakeholder expectations.
D. Update the project scope to align with stakeholder requirements.

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QUESTION 150
The procurement department submits a request for proposai (RFP) to potential vendors to execute a projec1. After the bidder conferences, the project manager receives an email !rom vendor A requesting clarification of the RFP.
What should the project manager do next?
A. Amend the RFP with the clarification and resend itto ail the vendors.
B. Email ail the vendors with the clarification.
C. Email vendor Awith the clarification.
D. Obtain managemenfs approval before sending the information.